It might seem silly to ask, but who is "we"? In Greek as in English, "we" can refer to a number of different things. It does refer to the speaker as a member of a larger group, but often the relation to the hearers is ambiguous. Does the author mean "we" as in "you and us," such that the hearers are included in the group? Or does the author mean "we" as in "us as distinct from you," such that the hearers are not included in the group? In grammatical terms this is the difference between the inclusive we and the exclusive we. It might seem minor, but it can really impact exegesis and interpretation. Take, for example, Paul's statement in Galatians 2:16:
yet we know that no one is justified by the works of the law but by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. And we have come to believe in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by the faithfulness of Christ and not by the works of the law, because by the works of the law no one will be justified.
Reading this verse by itself, a natural conclusion is that "we" means Paul and his hearers. Paul describes how he and the Galatians have all expressed faith in Christ so they could be justified. This would then be a general statement about faith in Christ leading to justification. But now take a look at the preceding verse:
We are Jews by birth and not Gentile sinners
This verse makes clear that when Paul says "we" in v. 16, he is not including his hearers in the group. "We" in this context means "we Jews as opposed to the Gentiles." Thus v. 16 is not a general statement about people in general but a specific statement about Paul and Peter as Jews who have turned from the law to Christ for justification. It changes the topic from faith and justification in general to faith and justification as a Jewish distinctive. So even though it's a minor question, it has a big answer.